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Was St. Philoxenus julianist?
In the Letter to the Monks of Teleda, speaking of the human operations and defects (hunger, thirst, fatigue) which Christ assumed, St. Philoxenus says that they were not in Christ as they are in us:
«Not indeed as they are performed by man, were those things which I have enumerated in man performed by God. For they are performed by man naturally, but (they are performed) by God in the wonder of His Economy, supernaturally, in true wonder».
And again, in the same letter, he writes:
«Therefore, He (Christ) is also above death naturally, for His Incarnation took place in a holy manner, without intercourse, without the concupiscence of sin and death. Because there is not in Him any one of these things, His fight was not His own or for Himself; nor were the rest of the weak things which He assumed in His person (His own or for Himself); but, by His will He fulfilled them in Himself for us. For if He had been subject to them naturally, they would have been performed by Him necessarily as by every man, and then His victory over these things would have been for Himself and not for us. By His will, therefore, was He subject to them, not as by excess or defect, or as ruled by necessity, or as impelled by the motion of concupiscence, or as a sufferer, or as mortal by nature, but as being above all these things by nature» (https://tertullian.org/fathers/philoxenus_three_02_part1.htm)
And he wrote:
«For He was not a sufferer by His nature, because, if He had suffered being a sufferer (by nature), He would have suffered for Himself.» (https://tertullian.org/fathers/philoxenus_three_04_letter_to_monks.htm)
So, was Saint Philoxenus a julianist and how can these statements be explained?


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Centuries – Fr. Tadros Y Malaty'