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why did jesus told mary magdolin not to touch him?
well thats my question..i hope no one gets this question wrong..that question was asked yesterday at pre servants meeting but we had a different person giving us the lecture and i didn't really get what he said!
GBU
sandra
GBU
sandra
Comments
Forever,
Coptic Servent
but how come he let thomas touch him to prove he was alive?
GBU
sandra
pope shenoda said that mary magdolin doubted his resurrection due to the rumours that the chief priests said about the body of jesus that it was stolen during the night.even the disciples themselves didn`t believe in the begining.and how strong will be her faith compared with the disciples` faith ,she the young girl.
so when jesus saw here he told her not to touch him meaning that with this weak faith she didn`t deserve to touch him although she had seen him and touched his feet (Matthew 28:9)
With all respect to H.H. Pope Shenuda, there is another explanation i find making more sense. This explanation was given by St Augustine in his Homilies on the gospel of St John.
He says that the words 'do not touch me' said by Christ to Mary are a proclamation of His divinity. Because Mary was sorrowful and crying over him, this showed that she did not understand that he is 100% God and one with the father. So St Augustine says "do not touch me for I am not yet ascended to my Father" means do not come to Me if you do not acknowledge that I am God and one with the father. That is why Jesus says 'my father' and not 'our father', to acknowledge that his sonship is different to ours, he is the son of God by nature (True God out of true God).
offcourse everyone is free to chose which interpretation they find more convincing
God bless
pope shenoda mentioned this explanation of St Augustine.i think the 2 explanation have the same idea that mary wasn`t having enough faith in jesus to be god.
The thing about her not totally believing He was risen is also contradictory to Thomas, who touched him, because he did not believe what the disciples had seen.
Jesus told her not to touch Him because after the Resurrection he ascended to the Father and showed him the "sacrifice" so God would accept it and he came back to Earth. Do not mix this ascension with the one 40 days after the Resurrection...2 totally different events...hope that helps
Jesus told her not to touch Him because after the Resurrection he ascended to the Father and showed him the "sacrifice" so God would accept it and he came back to Earth.
this is the first time i hear this.i am not sure if it is right.where did you get it from mtanious32 ?!!
find out the full answers:
http://www.copticnet.com/Articles/English Articles/The Magdalene.pdf
by His Eminence Metropolitan Bishoy
sandrahanna, I read a perfect answer to your question in pages 4 and 5 (under side title: the 5th visit)
"Do not touch me" = do not cling to me
Hi,
With all respect to H.H. Pope Shenuda, there is another explanation i find making more sense. This explanation was given by St Augustine in his Homilies on the gospel of St John.
He says that the words 'do not touch me' said by Christ to Mary are a proclamation of His divinity. Because Mary was sorrowful and crying over him, this showed that she did not understand that he is 100% God and one with the father. So St Augustine says "do not touch me for I am not yet ascended to my Father" means do not come to Me if you do not acknowledge that I am God and one with the father. That is why Jesus says 'my father' and not 'our father', to acknowledge that his sonship is different to ours, he is the son of God by nature (True God out of true God).
offcourse everyone is free to chose which interpretation they find more convincing
God bless
Yes, i read the same. However, if Saint THomas doubted, then why was he allowed to touch the wounds of Christ?
what he means is he doubted but he wanted to know, he wanted to believe, while Mary Magdelen just doubted..
i think thats right please correct me if im wrong
Pray for me a sinner
May the prayers of Pope Kyrollos be with us all Amen
Glory be to OUr GOD Amen!
God Bless
Coptic Pharaoh
Hi,
With all respect to H.H. Pope Shenuda, there is another explanation i find making more sense. This explanation was given by St Augustine in his Homilies on the gospel of St John.
He says that the words 'do not touch me' said by Christ to Mary are a proclamation of His divinity. Because Mary was sorrowful and crying over him, this showed that she did not understand that he is 100% God and one with the father. So St Augustine says "do not touch me for I am not yet ascended to my Father" means do not come to Me if you do not acknowledge that I am God and one with the father. That is why Jesus says 'my father' and not 'our father', to acknowledge that his sonship is different to ours, he is the son of God by nature (True God out of true God).
offcourse everyone is free to chose which interpretation they find more convincing
God bless
This is the explanation we were taught also. Well done for posting it.
So, should I assume that Saint Thomas, although he believed in Christ's Divinity, doubted that He rose from the dead?? Why then did St Thomas get to touch also Christ?
But what would have been so bad if she had touched Him? I mean, it still doesnt make complete sense, because as soon as He said "Mary", she knew it was "Him". So, she believed. THen surely touching Him also would increase her faith??
ascended i think
but how come he let thomas touch him to prove he was alive?
When Jesus saw Mary Magdalin... he had just risen from the death.. He had not went to see the Father yet... "17 Jesus said to her, “Do not cling to Me, for I have not yet ascended to My Father; but go to My brethren and say to them, ‘I am ascending to My Father and your Father, and to My God and your God.’” John 20:17
but when He appered and let Thomas touch His wounds... He had already gone to se the Father and had came back to teach them all what they neede to know to spread the word of Christianity...
[quote author=mnc_hnn link=topic=3918.msg55163#msg55163 date=1148154808]
ascended i think
but how come he let thomas touch him to prove he was alive?
When Jesus saw Mary Magdalin... he had just risen from the death.. He had not went to see the Father yet... "17 Jesus said to her, “Do not cling to Me, for I have not yet ascended to My Father; but go to My brethren and say to them, ‘I am ascending to My Father and your Father, and to My God and your God.’” John 20:17
but when He appered and let Thomas touch His wounds... He had already gone to se the Father and had came back to teach them all what they neede to know to spread the word of Christianity...
But why couldn't she touch Him BEFORE He ascended to His Father? WHy??
What difference does that make if he ascended or not to His Father. WHilst He was on the cross, HE was still in Heaven - With the Father!! (from what Sayedna said).
(me and 3 other people), and someone asked him that question, and I didn't pay attention to one word of it ;D
I do remember that it had something to do with the fact that Mary Magdalene should have believed by that point that he was risen, but she didn't. Thomas believed right away after he put his finger in Christ's flesh, but Mary was even told to her that she was risen by the angels in Christ's tomb.
But here is what I think in regards to Mary Magdalene:In Matt 28:9 "And as they went to tell His disciples, behold, Jesus met them, saying, “Rejoice!” So they came and held Him by the feet and worshiped Him, we note that the women among whom was also Mary Magdelene met the Lord after he rose and held him by the feet. So,it means there was nothing wrong to touch him and Mary Magdalene did touch him.But she was in doubt for she came seeking him among the dead.Her actions revealed uncertainty in the Lord's ability to conquer death. This is to say, she did not approach Him with full faith in her heart and mind of Him being equal to the Father. As a result of her actions, Jesus might have prevented her from touching him. He wished her to believe in Him as God equal to the heavenly Father. Most probably, this verse teaches us that the Lord is not about physical relationships with His people, but about spiritual relationships which are based on believe. That is what he tried to make clear to Thomas in John 20:29 " Then Jesus told him (thomas), "Because you have seen me, you have believed; blessed are those who have not seen and yet have believed.".
Interesting, my bro was cornering me with this question some time ago. I never knew a logic answer.
But here is what I think in regards to Mary Magdalene:In Matt 28:9 "And as they went to tell His disciples, behold, Jesus met them, saying, “Rejoice!” So they came and held Him by the feet and worshiped Him, we note that the women among whom was also Mary Magdelene met the Lord after he rose and held him by the feet. So,it means there was nothing wrong to touch him and Mary Magdalene did touch him.But she was in doubt for she came seeking him among the dead.Her actions revealed uncertainty in the Lord's ability to conquer death. This is to say, she did not approach Him with full faith in her heart and mind of Him being equal to the Father. As a result of her actions, Jesus might have prevented her from touching him. He wished her to believe in Him as God equal to the heavenly Father. Most probably, this verse teaches us that the Lord is not about physical relationships with His people, but about spiritual relationships which are based on believe. That is what he tried to make clear to Thomas in John 20:29 " Then Jesus told him (thomas), "Because you have seen me, you have believed; blessed are those who have not seen and yet have believed.".
mary magdeline saw Jesus twice. once by herself and the other with the other marys.