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christ says he is the Door to heaven. is he a phyichal door? no
paul say ALL men have sinned. small children have not sinned. So obviously we can not take this teaching literally, to say that every-single man has sinned.
would you agree that not all things in the bibe must be Taken as their exact meaning
O chaste and undefiledholy in everythingwho brought God to uscarried in her arms. Hail to you O full of graceHail to you who has found graceHail to you who has given birth to Christthe Lord is with you.
Why did God make Mary sinless? i do not know. Posiibly becuase she has a speical role in the salvation of men, and to harbor and raise his son. God also wants people to love him. If everyone is perfect we are all slaves of God. He did not want this. I do not know why the Holy Ghost came over her. Possibly to enlighten her.
I would not say that Saint Paul's teaching were any better than a Solemnly definded Teaching by the Holy Father. Paul's teachings in the letter were obviously infallible but so are Dogmas definded by the Holy Father.
But what about Romans 3:23, "all have sinned"? Have all people committed actual sins? Consider a child below the age of reason. By definition he can’’t sin, since sinning requires the ability to reason and the ability to intend to sin.
since she was in a state of sancifying grace, because God Preserved her from original sin, she did not sin through out her life. the Blood of christ did save Mary. She would not have been able to enter heaven before CHrists Ascension. Why did God make Mary sinless?
by a singular privilege and grace granted by God.
28 And the angel being come in, said unto her: Hail, full of grace, the Lord is with thee: blessed art thou among women.
The Angel Hail's mary. As a Latin Catholic and a latin student i would like to explain to you what the word Hail means. Hail is a latin word used to great someone in a higher Rank then oneself. During the days of the Roman empire people would say Hail Caesar because he was their leader and greater then themselves. Now we see an Angel of the Lord Hailing a woman. He is greeting her with the word Hail because She is greater than Him. Now in the Bible the Angel of the Lord Says "full of Grace". THE ONLY OTHER PERSON IN THE BIBLE WHO IS DESCRIBED AS FULL OF GRACE IS THE LORD! now does this mean mary is equal to the Lord? Absoultley NOT. But both did not commit sin and this is why they are described this way.
She would not have been able to enter heaven berfore CHrits Ascension.
Basically the requirments for a mortal sin is full knowledge, full constent of will, and grave matter.
The Catechism of the Catholic Church states that she was "redeemed in a more exalted fashion, by reason of the merits of her Son" (CCC 492). She has more reason to call God her Savior than we do, because he saved her in an even more glorious manner!
Dogma develops. Truth is always truth. It was just undefiended and it was optinonal for Catholics to believe, because it was not Dogma.
Mary may or May not be our co-redemptrix. it is not dogma.
not every writing of the Pope would be on par with the bible. But if it is Dogmatic than yes, because both are true. How can one truth be better than another truth?
The term "co-redemptrix" is properly translated "the woman with the redeemer" or more literally "she who buys back with [the redeemer]." The prefix "co" comes from the Latin term "cum" which means "with" and not "equal to." Co-redemptrix therefore as applied to Mary refers to her exceptional cooperation with and under her divine son Jesus Christ, in the redemption of the human family, as manifested in Christian Scripture.