Question on the Incarnation

christine0820

When Moses asks for signs so people might believe Him, the Lord gives him the two signs which is the rod becoming a serpent and his hand becoming leprous like snow. These signs are to resemble the incarnation of the Lord. Can someone explain how?

peterfarrington

If you read here you find some comments from the fathers....

http://books.google.co.uk/books?id=ANYpTVpibyEC&printsec=frontcover&dq=ancient+christian+commentary+on+scripture+exodus&hl=en&ei=6q8aTqieOMmy8gOq9qWLDQ&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum=1&ved=0CCoQ6AEwAA#v=onepage&q=ancient christian commentary on scripture exodus&f=false

I would not say that there is a clear and consistent Christological and incarnational interpretation. It seems rather that different Fathers have reflected on these signs as seemed best to them.

imikhail

There are certain appearances in the OT that are clearly point to the Incarnation or the manifestation of God in flesh.

For example, god's visitation to Abraham with two angels, Jacob's Ladder vision,the wrestle between Jacob and God, the cloud's appearance to the Israelite, the sponge of Gideon, ....

The miracles of Moses he did with the Egyptian are not of that nature but were a sign that the God of Israel is an Almighty God.

childoforthodoxy

Dearest brothers and sisters in Christ,

There is a wonderful commentary by St. Cyril of Alexandria on the signs that you have mentioned and how they are interpreted in a soteriological manner. They are related more or less to the Incarnation in terms of the salvific action of Christ's Person and Works as a whole. I am not sure if the commentary is readily available in English, but I will try to find it to post here.

Keep me in your continuous prayers,
Childoforthodoxy

imikhail

I agree that all the miracles could be reflected upon in a soteriological manner, but only a few could be interpreted as manifestation of God in the flesh.