If someone receives the Holy Spirit when they are saved or at baptism, why...

Comments

• egyptiankrkr

  February 2006

  it says in the bible that philopes the apostlic he is the one who babtized them but he did not but his hands on them because they had to have his hand on their head to get the holy spirit = it equales sier el mayron this days.!! now the apostlic did not put hands anymore because the church got bigger all over the world so an easier way the did the maseht el mayron
  
  (dad answered in arabic and i translated in english i hope this helps {i wish he spoke english cause he is a great teacher})
  
  kris
• Safaa

  February 2006

  Mikeforjesus,
  
  I imagine you meant by this part from chapter 8, Book of Acts,
  “14: Now when the apostles at Jerusalem heard that Sama'ria had received the word of God, they sent to them Peter and John,
  15: who came down and prayed for them that they might receive the Holy Spirit;
  16: for it had not yet fallen on any of them, but they had only been baptized in the name of the Lord Jesus.
  17: Then they laid their hands on them and they received the Holy Spirit.
  18: Now when Simon saw that the Spirit was given through the laying on of the apostles' hands, he offered them money,. “
  
  In the Holy baptism, the person is baptised to the death, burrier and resurrection of our Lord Christ, so he/she is saved from the corrupt state of the original fall. In a more easy way to understand, he/she is entitle to all the blessing and redemption of the cross.
  After that the person needs the dwelling of the Holy Spirit, and he/she receives Him by laying of the hands of the Apostles. Later on after the spread of Christianity all over the old world, it became harder for the bishop to travel long distance for performing this sacrament of “ Laying on the hands. ”
  The Apostles made the Holy Anointment, “ Almayroon “ to be the way of receiving the Holy Spirit.
• Safaa

  February 2006

  egyptiankrkr,
  Your answered is excellent, I just wrote my answer few minutes after you already replied without knowing. I am glad both answer are correct.
  
• mikeforjesus

  February 2006

  Thankyou to both of you!
  
• mikeforjesus

  February 2006

  I want to ask do you know maybe if the orthodox church believes St Augustine was saved?
  
  Because he might not of had a right understanding of original sin... did he not think we inherit the guilt of original sin and not just the curse (if that makes sense)?
  
  If someone knows where one of the threads talking about the immaculate conception is please copy and paste it here or something... ?
  
  If we believe St Mary never sinned then why was she in need of a Saviour? and if we believe we do not inherit the guilt of original sin but just the curse (if that makes sense) then does that mean she was not in need of salvation because she is not guilty of that too? maybe she was in need of salvation from the curse only? but she died on earth did she not?
  
  Answer what you think might be the answer
  
  I hope I am making sense..
  
  If these questions have already been answered please direct ? me to where I can find the answers.. and you dont have to answer them yourself then ?..
  
  
  
• Safaa

  February 2006

  St Mary's Sinlessness, and the RCC dogma of Immaculate Conception here is the link:
  http://tasbeha.org/content/community/index.php?board=12;action=display;threadid=3054;start=0
  
  The humanity did not inherit the original sin or guilt but the corrupted state and the everlasting death.
• Christ4Life

  February 2006

  [quote/]
  I want to ask do you know maybe if the orthodox church believes St Augustine was saved?

  
  
  The Church cannot decide whether someone was saved or not, that is God's decision.
  
  However, he is a saint in the Orthodox Church (i'm not exactly sure of this)...