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Why did Christ say "my God My God, Why have You Forsaken Me?"

ZoxsasiZoxsasi
edited December 1969 in Faith Issues
Hi,

Christ said these words on the cross: "My God, My God, why have you forsaken Me".

I know that the CoC tells us that Christ was reciting the Psalms of David (this one being Psalm 22). i.e. that He was telling them witnessing all this, that He was fulfilling the prophesies.

But why did Christ have this feeling of being "forsaken" ? Did the Father, at any time, leave His Son?

Was there any disunity between them?

I know the Protestants believe that when Christ was on the cross, the Father, at that moment, turned His Head (so to speak) as His Son was carrying the sins of the world at that time.
But, I don't think that is correct, as we say in our Church that God, the Father smelt the "good" aroma of the sacrifice of Christ on the cross.

Thanks

Comments

  • Christforlife7Christforlife7
    Starting from the Garden of Gethsemane the night before, Christ started feeling the agony he would face of taking on the sin of all the world. All who had ever existed and all who would ever exist. Being the perfect lamb, free of any blemish and in complete conciliation with the Father, taking on this sin was devastating. He was in pure agony because of it. Imagine it's like the greatest of opposites being forced to become united. It was terrible.

    Christ reciting this line doesn't entail that God the Father had forsaken Him, but that he had been taken away from his Father. The sin separating them caused Christ to be in total agony and felt helpless because he was joined with the great opposite of his nature and taken away from His Father.

    Sorry if I repeated myself or couldn't word myself well. I hope this makes sense. There is another reason to it, that sort of tied into this one and might build on it. I will try and post it later :) Pray for me.
  • Amoussa01
    I was taught that Christ was fulfilling a prophecy that David the psalmist had which was in psalm 22.

    GB
    Tony
  • ZoxsasiZoxsasi
    [quote author=Tishori link=topic=9143.msg113655#msg113655 date=1271899315]
    Starting from the Garden of Gethsemane the night before, Christ started feeling the agony he would face of taking on the sin of all the world. All who had ever existed and all who would ever exist. Being the perfect lamb, free of any blemish and in complete conciliation with the Father, taking on this sin was devastating. He was in pure agony because of it. Imagine it's like the greatest of opposites being forced to become united. It was terrible.

    Christ reciting this line doesn't entail that God the Father had forsaken Him, but that he had been taken away from his Father. The sin separating them caused Christ to be in total agony and felt helpless because he was joined with the great opposite of his nature and taken away from His Father.

    Sorry if I repeated myself or couldn't word myself well. I hope this makes sense. There is another reason to it, that sort of tied into this one and might build on it. I will try and post it later :) Pray for me.


    thanks.. do you have any references from our church fathers?
  • Christforlife7Christforlife7
    While I get my reference, this thread should give you a lot more information:

    http://www.monachos.net/forum/showthread.php?5216-Eli-Eli-lama-sabachthani-Why-does-Christ-quote-Psalm-22-from-the-cross
  • ZoxsasiZoxsasi
    [quote author=Tishori link=topic=9143.msg113661#msg113661 date=1271900256]
    While I get my reference, this thread should give you a lot more information:

    http://www.monachos.net/forum/showthread.php?5216-Eli-Eli-lama-sabachthani-Why-does-Christ-quote-Psalm-22-from-the-cross


    My friend, the link you've sent is perfect. It has the right answer. They've even added patristical quotes.

    Thanks. it is PERFECT!
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