" But Abram said to the king of Sodom, “I now raise my hand and solemnly swear to [God's Personal Name], maker of heaven and earth, that I won’t take a...."
Yet, later, in Exodus 6:3, God speaks to Moses and states,
"I appeared to Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob as El Shadday, but I didn’t make myself known to them by my name, [God's Personal Name]."
Did Abraham know God's Name as [God's Personal Name]", blessed be His Name, as in Genesis 14:22? If he did, then what does Exodus 6:3 mean?
There are many instances of God’s Personal Name being used going all the way back to Eve in the copies of the Hebrew Manuscripts that give us the current protestant versions of the Bible, including the NKJV, NRSV, etc. In Most English speaking Bibles, LORD (Al RUBB, in Arabic) in capital letters are used to designate “Adonai”, the Hebrew word for LORD to replace God’s Personal Name.
When reviewing the Names of God in the latest Hebrew copies of the Bible, it appears that going all the way back to Eve in the book of Genesis, God’s Personal name was known. There is a Bible translation called, “NOG- Name of God Bible” that avoids the Jewish tradition of replacing God’s name with other epithets and uses the original Names ascribed to God such as the description EL/Elohim and El Elyon, meaning Most High, and God Almighty, and His personal name, blessed be His Name, “Y__H”
One explanation I cam across holds that God’s Personal Name, blessed be His Name, WAS known prior to Moses, even to Abraham and all way back to Eve, but that the full meaning of His Personal Name, was not fully experienced or understood until the time of Moses and the exodus, but I have trouble swallowing that interpretation, given the plain reading of the English, “..I didn’t make myself known to them by my name, Y____h”. For example, the Bible says about Eve in Genesis 4:1
“..... She said, “I have gotten the man that [God's Personal Name] promised.”
Which in the NKJV is worded, ".... and said, “I have acquired a man from the Lord.”