Scholars commonly estimate the date for the Apocalypse of Peter to be from c.90-150 AD and its place of writing to be Egypt. The Muratorian Canon and Clement Alexandrine included it as canonical, but it eventually fell out of use. In the link below are: an incomplete Greek version, citations from the Apocalypse of Peter by the Church
fathers, and an Ethiopic version:
What do you think about the passage below from the Apocalypse of Peter that
implies that all sinners will be eventually be saved? Does this imply
that their suffering in the afterlife would be something like the Catholic concept of purgatory?
First, Peter sees the Last Judgment, which separates the righteous from the sinners:
And he showed me in his right hand the souls of all men, And on the palm of
his right hand the image of that which shall be accomplished at the last day:
and how the righteous and the sinners shall be separated, and how they do that
are upright in heart, and how the evil-doers shall be rooted out unto all
Then, the modern editor M.R. James quotes the following conversation between Christ and Peter regarding the sinners, and he puts his own editorial comments in brackets:
The Father hath committed all judgement unto the Son.
[The destiny of sinners -their eternal doom- is more than Peter can endure: he appeals to Christ to have pity on them.]
And my Lord answered me and said to me: "Hast thou understood that which
I said unto thee before? It is permitted unto thee to know that
concerning which thou askest: but thou must not tell that which thou
hearest unto the sinners lest they transgress the more, and sin."
[Peter weeps many hours, and is at last consoled by an answer which,
though exceedingly diffuse and vague does seem to promise ultimate
pardon for all:]
"My Father will give unto them all the life, the glory, and the kingdom
that passeth not away,' . . . 'It is because of them that have believed
in me that I am come. It is also because of them that have believed in
me, that, at their word, I shall have pity on men."
M. R. James comments further: "The doctrine that sinners will be saved at last by the
prayers of the righteous is, rather obscurely, enunciated in the Second
Book of the Sibylline Oracles (a paraphrase, in this part, of the
Apocalypse), and in the (Coptic) Apocalypse of Elias."
Wikipedia's article on the Apocalypse of Peter gives the following interpretation and cites God's words from the Apocalypse of Peter:
Thus, sinners will finally be saved by the prayers of those in heaven. Peter then
orders his son Clement not to speak of this revelation since God had
told Peter to keep it secret:
[and God said]"... thou must not tell that which thou hearest unto the sinners lest they transgress the more, and sin."
Do God's words in the passage that Peter must not inform the sinners about their future salvation imply that Christians in Peter's own lifetime
hadn't heard the passage's teaching of universal salvation?