Yeshua in Coptic

How would Yeshua (Jesus's name in Aramaic) be written in Coptic?
Also what would the English phonetic spelling be?

Comments

  • The same as Greek I guess.
  • Ⲓⲏⲥⲟϒⲥ Ⲡⲓⲭ́ρⲓⲥτⲟⲥ

    Isos Piekhristos
  • Thank you for that, but isn't that just Jesus Christ. I am trying to form Yeshua.
    I don't have ability to type Coptic but would it be
    Yota Eta Shay Epsilon Alpha?
  • Dear @dflynn,
    No - Yeshua in the Old Testament is either /Iycouc/ or /Iycou/. You will mutilate the name, and insignify the meaning if you use an arbitrary spelling than what we already have. 
    Oujai khan ebshois
  • edited January 25
    Joshua and Jesus is the same name.  Ophadece is correct.  Just because it's "Yeshua" in Aramaic does not mean the Coptic also writes Aramaic names.  The record shows that it was consistent in how it wrote the name.
  • In a Bible class my church is offering, the teacher explicitly said the name Jesus and Joshua are both extremely similar in Aramaic- similar enough to be almost the same. I almost think of it as Judah (the tribe) and Jude (Thaddeus)- in Coptic, both are Iouda, even when used in entirely different contexts.
  • I have found this entry on another blog concerning the name Joshua. 

    Joshua does not transliterate into Greek exactly. There are letters in Hebrew (Aramaic) that are simply not there in Greek. The Greek of Luke 3:29, Acts 7:45 and Hebrews 4:8 all have Ἰησοῦ/s for Joshua. Translators render it as Joshua instead of Jesus because that is the name readers will be familiar with. Likewise, the Septuagint uses Ἰησοῦ/s (Greek grammar rules specify that the final sigma appears depending on the case of the noun).

    That "Joshua" transliterates as "Jesu"s is easy to see when you examine the respective alphabets (HebrewGreek).

    J - the Hebrew yod becomes the Greek Iota

    E - the same sound is found in both

    H - Greek has no stand alone letter for H, so they had to drop this letter.

    O - Without an H to connect to, the O disappears. Combining the e and o would produce an unnatural sound in Greek--they don't have that dipthong.

    SH - the Hebrew shin (long e sound) is SH together and becomes a sigma (merely an S) as Greek does not have a letter for the SH sound.

    U - equivalent sounds in both languages

    A - Greek prefers not to end a name with a vowel sound, so they often (but not always) add a sigma.



    As the name Joshua was transmitted from the Aramaic Yeshua to the Greek Iesous, then the Coptic translation which followed the Greek naturally copies similarly. But Coptic actually has the phoneme of sh. If you where to spell Yeshua entirely phonetically (putting all theological arguments to one side) what would it be?
  • Dear @dflynn,
    Spelling on the basis of phonetics ought not to be official or general if you will. Do whatever you want with the name you would like to spell, but remember it will only be familiar to yourself only. We discussed the name and answered your question above, so when modifying the argument further you are only creating an arbitrary case for yourself. There is no need to worry about the etymology of the name in Greek or Coptic in order to modify it, because there is no need to..
    Oujai khan ebshois
  • You just want a Coptic transliteration of “Yeshua”?
  • Yes. Nothing else.
  • Ⲓⲉϣⲱⲁ?
  • Thank you
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