Analimipsees or Analipsees

Xristos anesti

For the upcoming ascension feast, I wanted to know the technical differences between analimipsees and analipsees and which word is more correct to use. Ibro records it with the latter but some other texts say other wise.

Comments

  • Probably just overthinking it!
  • <c anecty
    Dear @mnhanna9,
    Both are perfectly acceptable. analum'yc is the Copticisation of the Greek word analu'yc. Only because nowadays there is a move towards the Hellenisation of the hymns (especially the originally Greek ones) do they say the latter... by the way using the latter way you corrupt the correct pronunciation (the Greco-Bohairic pronunciation albeit a mistaken dialect in the first place)...
    Oujai qen P[c
  • edited June 10
    @ophadece actually, I'm pretty sure one is a noun and one is a verb... I'll double check that real quick

    //EDIT
    I was sort of close... analu'yc means "withdrawal" as a noun, while analum'yc means "taking over". They mean two very different things, and analu'yc makes the most sense.
  • Dear @Daniel_Kyrillos
    I am not sure where you have got this information from, but I presume from a Greek dictionary. In Coptic both mean the same thing - ascension
    Oujai khan ebshois
  • Dear @Daniel_Kyrillos
    I am not sure where you have got this information from, but I presume from a Greek dictionary. In Coptic both mean the same thing - ascension
    Oujai khan ebshois
  • ανάληψης means take-back this is how it is pronounced in Greek. The extra Ⲙ tended to occur in Greek loan words to Coptic. According to WA Girgis, later Bishop Gregorious Greek words in Coptic University of Manchester for a PhD. Copts occasionally added letters or subtracted them according to how they heard these words. Another example is the Greek name of the emperor Constantine which was changed to ⲕⲱⲥⲧⲁⲛⲧⲓⲛⲟⲥ
    He later published his work in a series of eight articles in the Bulletin de la Société d’archéologie copte (BSAC).
    Whether to use the Greek original word or the form used does not have a straightforward answer. It depends on perspective. If one believes that there is a correct form of spelling and pronunciation, and uses Greek as a yardstick therefore, the inclination would be towards reverting to the original word.
    If someone accepts that Greek/Latin loan words do take different forms in other languages, and maintains fidelity to Coptic language, therefore, the conclusion would favour leaving words as we inherited them. As languages do not have right or wrong, they represent their era, and their history, we know the etymology of the word, but languages are dynamic and loan words do change when they migrate.
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