[center]How can you say, "We are wise, for we have the law of the LORD," when actually the lying pen of the scribes has handled it falsely? Jeremiah 8:8[/center]
Can anyone help me out with this verse.... what is it implying exactly...caz upon first glance it seems kinda blasphemous to a lay[wo]man like myself. How have the scribes falsly handled the words of God.... sumone... PLEASE ENLIGHTEN ME.
~*~ Thank You in Advance