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Bashois or Abanshois
  • Bashois is more correct...
    Oujai
  • Well, in almost every book I own it says Apenchois

    Can you explain why bashois is correct? and why books are all wrong?
  • The letter "a" is an article for past tense that should be followed by a verb, even after the subject of the sentence (i.e. Banshois). However, we find the wording follows along the lines of other hymns for Theophany and Resurrection, without a verb, but with "betawmasf" (= who was born). If the writer should have wanted to do it in the abanshois manner, it should have been "abanshois yesous bekhrestos mici ewolkhan dibartanos". That is not the case.
    The only abenshois paralax we know is for the Lent: apanshois yesous bekrestos arnastawin ehrai ejon - signifying (in my opinion) an act that WAS done in order to teach us that we should do it, rather than it being a salvation act (although it is leading to a salvation act anyway).
    Oujai
    PS: sorry for no Coptic editing available on the website these days... hope the moderators will do something about it soon
  • in my church the only time we say pachois is for the feast of the Resurrection.  every other paralax we say apenchois.
  • Fady gives a good understanding... But also it depend on the hymn.  They are simply different paralexes
  • Dear Copticuser20,
    Are you sure of what you're saying? If so, do you sing it like that in Theophany, Kiahk, and Pentecost?
  • Fady, in the books i've seen its not fetavmasf but fetasmasf, Does this make a difference when using Apenchois(by the way, all of the paralex are in past tense which still makes sense because all of these were acts done.) For Theophany, my text says Pachois, then saying fetavchioms etc for other feasts depending.
  • [quote author=ophadece link=topic=10416.msg126651#msg126651 date=1294502409]
    Dear Copticuser20,
    Are you sure of what you're saying? If so, do you sing it like that in Theophany, Kiahk, and Pentecost?



    Forgive me. We say Pachois during the 50 days (Resurrection, Ascension, Pentecost). Kiahk we dont say a paralax and I am pretty sure for Theophany we say Apenchois.
  • Dear jydeacon,
    My mistake. It is betasmasf nja dibartanos. Still the same thing; that is not past tense strictly speaking but an indirect form of speech.
    Dear Copticuser20,
    I doubt if in Theophany you sing it abanshois since in every book it's written bashois.
    Oujai
  • [quote author=ophadece link=topic=10416.msg126664#msg126664 date=1294508459]
    Dear jydeacon,
    My mistake. It is betasmasf nja dibartanos. Still the same thing; that is not past tense strictly speaking but an indirect form of speech.
    Dear Copticuser20,
    I doubt if in Theophany you sing it abanshois since in every book it's written bashois.
    Oujai



    hmm. i will look at my church's powerpoints for Theophany tonight and get back to you. that is the only one i am not 100% sure about. the rest i am
  • [quote author=jydeacon link=topic=10416.msg126653#msg126653 date=1294503483]
    Fady, in the books i've seen its not fetavmasf but fetasmasf, [...]


    F-et-a-s-masf can't be correct right? The sigma refers to a woman, the fai to a man. ophadece?
  • It is right Aegyptian... asmasf is rendered a verb referring to dibartanos by the word nja that follows. Pretty much like: khan oushot afshot nja bemow (bemow being masculine). I also prefer seima to the Greek sigma...
    Oujai
  • Ophadece is right. His explanation makes much more sense as I have seen a moving trend for cantors nowadays chanting "pachois" rather than "apenchoise" including Cantor Ibrahim Ayad during the mass of the Feast of Nativity in 2011. Thanks for clearing the confusion.
  • Thanks for letting me know kmeka, I wasn't aware of that...
    Oujai


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